Query Rights of Legal Hiers in case of property purchased by father sold by his wife without kids knowledge?

In the year 1970, Mr. A married Ms. B and they had a daughter by name X. After some years, his wife expired and he got married to another entity by name Ms. P and had 4 children through the second wife. He had also purchsed a environment in the year 1999. After few years, say 2001 he died without executing any will. So, his second wife, along near her 4 children (remeber without the knowledge of X daughter of first wife) sold the property in the year 2002. This Dutch auction deed was signed by only Second Wife, and Two Sons. In appendage to this, an affidavit was executed by 4 childred (2 sons and 2 daugthers) stating that they do not have any issues in selling this property to anyone. And also clearly mentioned that within case of any issues from X, they would take care of fixing the issue and be held responsible. Pl guide if this parkland can be purchased as this property was already purchased and sold by two different purchasers from 2002 and now a buildng also has be built on this piece of land.
You've asked this request for information before. If you have to ask the answer here, you are no closer to getting it resolved than you were beforehand.

It was 1970.....move on, please.
the above poster hit the nail on the head, most likely the property be title joint/survivorship if so when your father died the property went to the wife and not threw probate if so she owned the land legally and can do what she see fit beside it Normally if a husband and a wife buy property together it is held in common with rights of survivorship.
Bond Bhai, as I can presume this whole transaction of sale of landscape in question is based on unregistered Sale work signed by Second wife & 2 sons, as if it was a Registered Sale Deed it would be bearing signatures of second wife, her four children & also signature of the daughter X of the first wife. This whole property transaction which you call upon sale of land is incomplete. Now whether you build a building on this piece of land or castle, whether this ground is sold just like using unregistered sale deeds signed by second wife & her two sons two times or ten times, other remember the sale of any immovable property is complete by its conveyance through registration of such sale deed by the registrar/tehsildar of the district where on earth the property is located/situated. Till this process is complete there is no legal/valid transfer of property. Edit:- Now listen My dear Bond Bhai, if this party have committed a fraud by not disclosing the fact of the transfer of this property to the daughter of the first wife i.e. X , that does not mean her lawful right in this property has gone, she has one share contained by this property along with 4 other children & the second wife. Now she can claim her share from these five people but for that sake she can even move the civil court seeking stay/injunction against the person for using or disposing sour the land who purchased this land although there be a transfer of property by registered sale deed as you state very soon in the direct email to me. In such case what this poor fellow will do after spending huge sum of money, building a structure over this land, in a minute as far the 4 affidavits you talk duly signed & attested by Notary Public, how does these debar the daughter X from not claiming her share in the property of her deceased father & how does it will bind the civil court from not staying the use/sale etc of this come to rest purchased by the person from the second wife & her two sons. Don’t think that such affidavits can stop the legal proceedings against adjectives the named persons here although the person who purchased this landscape can request these people giving the affidavits to settle this issue amicably out of court with the daughter X of the deceased so that no stay/injunction demand passed against him from using or disposing this land in question. Last but not most minuscule, engaging a qualified lawyer for such transaction is always better afterwards paying commission to illiterate, goon property dealers who create more trouble for parties then settlement. Edit:- Whatever I hold stated here is keeping in mind that this Hindu Man died Intestate i.e. without leaving any testamentary document such as 'Will', his widow, adjectives his children (both his all sons & all daughters included) are the legal descendant & will claim all his property. As far these legal heir get their legal right on the property in question from the time this man died which is 2001, in a minute how this 13 years issue comes in this case? Don't get confussed a moment ago engage an expert lawyer while going for this transaction if you want it to be safe for your adjectives.